Hello,
I'm a consumer, not a tax pro, so I hope it's okay to ask this here.
By the way, given the time of year, I hope you're all taking your
vitamins and getting some sleep.
Background:
I submitted an OIC that was accepted in late 2006. (42K on 142K of tax
debt) The OIC specialist determined that the sole source of funding it
was the equity in my house. Dues to several un-fixable circumstances I
was not aware of beforehand, I was unable to get the house refinanced
and the deadline expired.
I believe I'm going to have to resubmit the OIC. My ability to pay any
amount beyond the equity in the house remains unchanged, but my
ability to qualify for a mortgage has.
So, what I'm wondering is: Let's say I refinance the house now,
understandably while the rates are low, and use that equity to pay
down debt and do some much-needed house repairs and in so doing, have
less equity to offer the IRS in another OIC. Do you think it's likely
that the IRS might "magically" finding that they should, after all,
figure in my future wages or otherwise be otherwise and irritated that
I used the money-no matter how rationally-instead of paying them?
Thanks much for any help.
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